A 16-year-old girl experiences chronic menorrhagia. Her PT is 12.2 s, PTT 37.1 s (H), factor VIII activity 51% (L), VWFag 54%, VWFactivity 45% (L), VWFRCo 43% (L), VWF multimers: normal distribution. CBC results are normal except HGB is 11.8 g/dL (L). What is her presumptive diagnosis, what follow-up testing, if any, is necessary, and what therapy would her hematologist select?
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The patient would probably do
The patient would probably do well if she was put on some kind of estrogen therapy. I have seen numerous patients who stopped having these symptoms during pregnancy or when put on birth control medication.
Haemophilia A carrier
Haemophilia A carrier combined with blood type O?